Umbreo Utukku
9 Aug 09 - 02:29
So I'm reading through the books again, and some things occur to me.
We're told that the real source of a magician's power is simply the spirits under that magician's command. My question is: Is that their ONLY source of power?
Most evidence indicates yes, but there are these little bits and pieces that might suggest otherwise.
What I mean is, Some magicians seem to be able to launch magical attacks, or use magic themselves without the aid of djinn. For example, in AOS -
(Simon Lovelace has just regained the amulet in Underwood's study.)
" . . . Underwood uttered the words of a defensive charm. A shimmering green net of protective threads rose to up enfold him."
(Then a bit later on)
"Swathed in his defensive nexus, Underwood sent a bolt of blue fire crackling towards Lovelace."
So it seems that underwood is able to perform magic himself, without the aid of a djinn.
There could be many ways to interpret this, which is why I want to see what you think.
Firstly, we know that spirits can perform these magical spells at will, so it could be that Underwood is only commanding a djinni that he has previously summoned, but which remains invisible. This would mean that the answer to my question is yes. I'm not sure about this though. If it was a hidden spirit, wouldn't Underwood just make a hand sign and it would come to his aid? And as it was Bartimaeus narrating, wouldn't he have seen the spirit, and said that it was, in fact, a spirit? And it does say that "Underwood sent a bolt of blue fire, etc."
Secondly, we know that magicians can do these sorts of things when in possesion of a magical object, which a an object in which a spirit is trapped. It might be possible that Underwood was using one such object. But as before, if this was the case, wouldn't Bartimaeus say so?
Thirdly, we know that sometimes a magician can utilize the abilities of spirits already summoned, but not contained within an object. For example, when Nat attacks Lovelace and his buddies with the mites. He didn't need to summon them, only apply the words of direction and control or whatever it was. Is it possible that Underwood was utilizing some magic previously summoned to Earth? Then again, the mites might be classified as a magical object, remembering that they were contained in a glass cube.
Forthly, we see in PG that when a magician summons a spirit into themselves, they can then use magical attacks. I'm not saying that Underwood has done this, because he hasn't, but could it be possible for a magician to summon some form of lesser magic into themselves? Which they, of course, could control. Unlike in PG.
The alternative to these ideas is that magicians DO have power of their own. If this is the case, what is the source of that power? Interesting to think about.
We're told that the real source of a magician's power is simply the spirits under that magician's command. My question is: Is that their ONLY source of power?
Most evidence indicates yes, but there are these little bits and pieces that might suggest otherwise.
What I mean is, Some magicians seem to be able to launch magical attacks, or use magic themselves without the aid of djinn. For example, in AOS -
(Simon Lovelace has just regained the amulet in Underwood's study.)
" . . . Underwood uttered the words of a defensive charm. A shimmering green net of protective threads rose to up enfold him."
(Then a bit later on)
"Swathed in his defensive nexus, Underwood sent a bolt of blue fire crackling towards Lovelace."
So it seems that underwood is able to perform magic himself, without the aid of a djinn.
There could be many ways to interpret this, which is why I want to see what you think.
Firstly, we know that spirits can perform these magical spells at will, so it could be that Underwood is only commanding a djinni that he has previously summoned, but which remains invisible. This would mean that the answer to my question is yes. I'm not sure about this though. If it was a hidden spirit, wouldn't Underwood just make a hand sign and it would come to his aid? And as it was Bartimaeus narrating, wouldn't he have seen the spirit, and said that it was, in fact, a spirit? And it does say that "Underwood sent a bolt of blue fire, etc."
Secondly, we know that magicians can do these sorts of things when in possesion of a magical object, which a an object in which a spirit is trapped. It might be possible that Underwood was using one such object. But as before, if this was the case, wouldn't Bartimaeus say so?
Thirdly, we know that sometimes a magician can utilize the abilities of spirits already summoned, but not contained within an object. For example, when Nat attacks Lovelace and his buddies with the mites. He didn't need to summon them, only apply the words of direction and control or whatever it was. Is it possible that Underwood was utilizing some magic previously summoned to Earth? Then again, the mites might be classified as a magical object, remembering that they were contained in a glass cube.
Forthly, we see in PG that when a magician summons a spirit into themselves, they can then use magical attacks. I'm not saying that Underwood has done this, because he hasn't, but could it be possible for a magician to summon some form of lesser magic into themselves? Which they, of course, could control. Unlike in PG.
The alternative to these ideas is that magicians DO have power of their own. If this is the case, what is the source of that power? Interesting to think about.
When I set out from the boy's attic window, my head was so full of competing plans and complex strategems that I didn't look where I was going and flew straight into a chimney.
Something symbolic in that. It's what fake freedom does for you.
Something symbolic in that. It's what fake freedom does for you.
