Nick76 Mouler
28 Jan 11 - 13:22
From "The Ring of Solomon", page 230:
"There was a good deal more of this, all very archaic, not to say long-winded, and spoken in a tortuous South Arabian dialect that was difficult to follow. But I'd been around the block a bit. I got the gist".
This funny passage somewhat puzzles me. I mean, it implicitly says that spirits do not understand and speak all languages. As a consequence, they might be summoned by someone who is unable to give them orders. This is particularly evident if we think that sometimes a spirit may not be summoned for centuries and then, when he is summoned again, all languages he had come into contact with have certainly disappeared.
How do spirits acquire a human language? Is it possible for a magician to summon a spirit and then realize he cannot speak with that spirit? Could the spirit exploit this to ignore orders, or even to deliberately kill the magician ("Sorry, I did not understand you said I could not kill you!")?
Another event from the trilogy comes to my mind. When Lovelace summons Ramathra, he gives him orders in English. Ramathra had apparently never been summoned before, so how could he have understood his orders?
Thanks in advance for your attention.
Regards,
Nick
"There was a good deal more of this, all very archaic, not to say long-winded, and spoken in a tortuous South Arabian dialect that was difficult to follow. But I'd been around the block a bit. I got the gist".
This funny passage somewhat puzzles me. I mean, it implicitly says that spirits do not understand and speak all languages. As a consequence, they might be summoned by someone who is unable to give them orders. This is particularly evident if we think that sometimes a spirit may not be summoned for centuries and then, when he is summoned again, all languages he had come into contact with have certainly disappeared.
How do spirits acquire a human language? Is it possible for a magician to summon a spirit and then realize he cannot speak with that spirit? Could the spirit exploit this to ignore orders, or even to deliberately kill the magician ("Sorry, I did not understand you said I could not kill you!")?
Another event from the trilogy comes to my mind. When Lovelace summons Ramathra, he gives him orders in English. Ramathra had apparently never been summoned before, so how could he have understood his orders?
Thanks in advance for your attention.
Regards,
Nick
Multa non quia difficilia sunt non audemus, sed quia non audemus sunt difficilia (Seneca).